]> 2026-07-31T07:51:38+00:00 WBR1147 0 en Reassurance Incorrect! Beta hCG test Correct! Serum DHEAS and testosterone Incorrect! Serum FSH Incorrect! Serum Prolactin Incorrect! The first step in the management of the primary and secondary amenorrhea is pregnancy test.<br/> '''Educational Objective:''' <br/> '''References:''' http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=2&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CDQQFjAB&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.researchgate.net%2Fpublication%2F222515877_Primary_amenorrhoea_investigation_and_treatment%2Ffile%2F9fcfd50ad5f01d0a89.pdf&ei=9saHU_D7IZGYqAbjgIK4Dg&usg=AFQjCNFoc-ARvg4kXl0jZJZDD9geicFA1g&bvm=bv.67720277,d.b2k OB/GYN A 17-year-old female presents to a pediatrician with her mother. The mother expresses concern that her daughter has never menstruated.The physician asks the mother to leave the room and begins taking a detailed history. The patient denies any history of penetrative sex, abdominal pain or STDs. The physician notes that the patient is in Tanner stage 3, and there is an absence of androgenic hair distribution. Pelvic and vaginal exam is unremarkable. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? B Obstetrics & Gynecology 2020-10-28T02:45:40Z 2459150.6150463 WBR1147